john
Well-known member
- Messages
- 1,204
You haven’t proved yet that he did do it.
Prove this. Putting you on ignore. A first here. Congrats.
You haven’t proved yet that he did do it.
It’s only when a bowl is made (with or without markings) for no other purpose but to be looked at, completely removed from its past, that it becomes art. It’s no longer made to contain something but to be something else.
I don't care whether what I make is art, or not. I don't even want to define "art". Perhaps it is a futile endeavour. As long as I feel fulfilled while I make the thing, no matter how difficult and even stressful the process, I am satisfied. If anyone else happens to appreciate the product, that, for me, is a bonus.
You are referring to final, masterpiece works of art that have been recorded and preserved and luckily survived the ages (not just time, also wars, negligence, etc.).No… I don’t believe this argument at all. The vast majority of all art had/has a utilitarian purpose. Portraits by Rembrandt, Rubens, Velazquez etc… had a utilitarian purpose of representing/commemorating individuals. Michelangelo’s Sistine paintings, Dürer’s prints, and lithographs and stained glass windows by Chagall all illustrated Biblical narratives. Illustration, decoration, portraiture, socio-political commentary, religious expression, erotica, etc… are all utilitarian to a greater or lesser degree. Very little art… almost none prior to the 19th century… is truly without any purpose beyond aesthetics.
The oldest flute ever found is the Divje Babe flute, a ~60,000-year-old Neanderthal flute.
But that it is done implies someone finds it moving. I.e. does it for its sake.
Your comments don’t really explain a lot and are certainly not convincing.[URL![]()
Neanderthals thought like we do
As early as 64,000 years ago Iberian Neanderthals created cave paintingswww.mpg.de
This statement is absurd. You seem to have this idea of Neanderthals living just like we do today.they would have had to make it fun for kids long enough to permit them to specialize through their adult life.
But no evidence of this. Why do you assume this? It’s not like there’s some evidence to, as you say, deduce it. Somehow, according to your theory, only the work done for pleasure has failed to survive, and only the utilitarian work has.Even if art was ultimately destined for utilitarian goals, it must have been also done in parallel for pleasure.
I didn’t say that, and to be clear I’d never say it.You defined art as seeking beauty.
Not sure what you mean here. The search for beauty is a very subjective idea. Just try to define beauty and see what response you get. Art for arts sake is exactly what it says. It’s not for developing useful skills. It’s also a modern idea, which is why I’m trying to find the point where art became that and not for any other purpose.Ultimately, then, there is not any "Art for art's sake", as the search for Beauty is the development of skills that are ultimately useful, for engineering, physics, chemistry, mating, reproduction, power... The question then becomes
Does Art for Art's sake exist or is it all ultimately and uniquely aimed at developing useful skills?
Because if it exists it must have existed for as long as Art does.