It is nonsense. Art is a form of expression, The assertion is akin to saying men can express themselves better and more than woment, which history has proven absolutely false in generic terms; if anything one might argue the opposite: that women are keener to share feelings more than men... which I find unsubstantiated as well; and that's only on specific cultures, circles and circumstances.
Anyway, as a form of expression, Art's interpretation and valuation is open, specially when not the result of a direct exchange: how could anyone tell what the author really meant when they expressed something? It'd be like trolling rants, open to a multitude of (mis)interpretations. Even if someone could tell which works were from one subset or other of a population, that would mean nothing about their artistic/expressive/descriptive merits, only about the classifying observer's preferences. Which would in no case be absolute, but just interest-vested assertions.
That any one raises such a proposition shows she's looking to raise a moot controversy to draw attention (and possibly get followers who want to hear that instead of the truth in order to feed her purse on their gullibility). In my dictionary (which is as subjective as I can be) that's -at a minimum- trolling. YMMV.